Hi all. I have a question regarding NAT mapping/inbound port forwarding.
Referring to this document: http://www.peplink.com/knowledgebase/having-multiple-subnets-behind-a-router-on-the-lan/
If we can perform NAT mapping from WAN2 IP directly to a private subnet behind a Layer 3 device via static route, why do we even need to perform NAT to WAN1 IP?
- 192.168.1.1 > 188.8.131.52 via static route to Layer 3 device
- 192.168.1.1 > 184.108.40.206, then 220.127.116.11 > 18.104.22.168
Since both the above achieve the same result, is there any particular reason that we would prefer one over the other?