I hope I haven’t missed this in a KB article or something, but I can’t figure it out.
Currently have a 3MB T1x2, and will be putting in a 10MB fiber line. I already have my two Peplinks to use for a HA setup, including the necessary switches. I have sufficient IPs to use for the initial Drop-in configuration. I have read over the KB articles and the User Manual. I think I have the concept down, but a couple of the diagrams don’t seem to quite match up.
First off, I can’t find anything that states the IPs used are the ISP issued public IPs. But I am using that assumption.
Herethe Drop-in mode “post installation” diagram shows an IP (x.x.x.1) used by the existing router, (x.x.x.2) used by the existing firewall, and the Peplink using (x.x.x.3) for WAN1/LAN. I get that.
Here the HA setup diagram shows the Drop-in WAN1 IP is different than the LAN. I understand because there are now two LAN ports, they need to be addressed uniquely. But what is confusing me is it doesn’t show what the IP would be for the original router for ISP1. Which I know wouldn’t change, but the placement of the labeling on the diagram is closer to the ISP1 than to the Peplink.
I may be over analyzing this.
Here is my current setup followed by what I am understanding my new setup would be.
[Current router ISP1] x.x.236.65<—> x.x.236.66 (external) [Current firewall] (internal) x.x.0.1 <—> Network
New Configuration (And yes these new address are in my public range)
[Current router ISP1] x.x.236.65 <----> (WAN1) x.x.236.123 [380 Active] (VIP) x.x.236.126 (LAN) x.x.236.125
(WAN1) x.x.236.123 [380 Backup] (VIP) x.x.236.126 (LAN) x.x.236.124 <—
—> x.x.236.66 (external) [Current firewall] (internal) x.x.0.1
Am I on the right track?