IPV6 - dual wan - balance one core


I have a balance one core with two DSL connections. I am considering using my DSL modem and enabling IPV6 for some IOT devices in my house.

Question, if I enable IPV6 on WAN1, does that mean ALL IPV6 traffic will ONLY go through WAN1 independently of my dual wan rules? Or, even though I have IPV6 addresses coming from WAN1, can IPV6 traffic go through WAN2?

Both connections are DSL from the same provider and each connect to the same DSLAM/ROUTER upstream of me.



When enabling IPv6 on the router it will forward one IPv6 address to one device on the LAN. I do not believe that the second WAN will be able to provide an IPv6 address as we do limit only the one address.


correct, I fully understand that.

question is, if WAN1 is giving all of my devices IPV6 addresses, does this mean ALL internet traffic will only go through WAN1, or is it possible to get an IPV6 from WAN1 and the internet traffic would still flow through WAN2.

Basically, if I enable IPV6 via WAN1, will my router just ignore WAN2 completely?


The IPv4 traffic will still be able to use WAN 2 without issue.


what about the IPv6 traffic? no go on WAN2? what if I have “enforced” set as a rule for a device to go to WAN2? How does that work? Will the client device find a way to jump to IPV4 for WAN2?


Once the device on the LAN has the IPv6 address, it should continue to send the traffic out the WAN the address was provided from. You did state that both of the WAN connections are from the same ISP. I will admit that I have not tested this myself. If the IPv6 address is using a gateway that can be reached from either WAN, it may be able to use both WANs.

This will depend on how you have the client device configured. If the client configured for both IPv4 and IPv6, you shouldn’t run into any issues when traffic is being routed out either WAN.